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\newtheorem{theorem}{Theorem}
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\lhead{\color{blue} \large Lecture Notes}
\chead{\color{black} \LARGE  Differentiating Trigonometric Functions}
\rhead{\large page   \ \thepage}
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\lfoot{\small   \copyright $\;$ copyright  Hidegkuti,  Powell,  2012}
\rfoot{\small Last revised: August 7, 2012}
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\begin{enumerate}
\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin x=\cos x\medskip \smallskip $\bigskip $\medskip $

\item $\dfrac{\smallskip d}{dx}\cos x=-\sin x\medskip \bigskip \smallskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan x=\sec ^{2}x=\tan ^{2}x+1\medskip \bigskip
\smallskip \medskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot x=-\csc ^{2}x=-\cot ^{2}x-1\bigskip \medskip
\smallskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec x=\dfrac{\sin x}{\cos ^{2}x}=\sec x\tan x\medskip
\smallskip $\bigskip

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc x=-\dfrac{\cos x}{\sin ^{2}x}=-\csc x\cot x\bigskip
\medskip \smallskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\medskip $\bigskip

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\bigskip \medskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}\medskip $\bigskip

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}\bigskip \medskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{\left\vert x\right\vert \sqrt{%
x^{2}-1}}\bigskip \medskip $

\item $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\left\vert x\right\vert \sqrt{%
x^{2}-1}}\medskip $ \ \ 
\end{enumerate}

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\begin{center}
{\LARGE Proofs}\bigskip
\end{center}

\fbox{Theorems 1 and 2: \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ \ and $\dfrac{d}{dx}%
\cos x=-\sin x$}\bigskip

Claim 1.) \ $\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin x}{x}=1\medskip $

Proof: \ This theorem and the next one are necessary for differentiating $%
\sin x$ and $\cos x$. \ Recall a theorem: \ Let $\ r$ be the radius of a
circle. \ If $\alpha $ is measured in radians, then the area of a sector
with a central angle of $\alpha $ is $A_{\text{sector}}=\dfrac{\alpha r^{2}}{%
2}$. \ (Notation: \ $\overline{AB}$ will denote the length of line segment $%
AB$.)$\medskip $

Let $x$ be a very small positive angle, measured in radians, drawn into a
unit circle as shown on the picture below. \ Let $B$ be the point where the
unit circle intersects the ray determined by $x$. \ We then draw a tangent
line to the circle at point $B$. \ Let $A$ be the point where the tangent
line intersects the $x-$axis. \ We also draw a vertical line through $B.$ \
Let $D$ be the point where this vertical line intersects the $x-$axis. \
Finally, let us denote by $E$ the point with coordinates $\left( 0,1\right) $%
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The proof will be based on the following fact: because they include each
other, the following three areas can be easily compared: 
\begin{equation*}
\text{Area of triangle }CDB\text{ }\leq \text{ Area of sector }CEB\text{ }%
\leq \text{ Area of triangle }ABC
\end{equation*}

Area of triangle $CDB$: \ the horizontal side, $\overline{CD}=\cos x$ and
the vertical side, $\overline{DB}=\sin x$. \ Since this is a right triangle,
the area is: $A_{CDB}=\dfrac{1}{2}\sin x\cos x\medskip $

Area of sector $CEB$: $A_{\text{sector}}=\dfrac{1^{2}x}{2}=\dfrac{x}{2}%
\medskip $

Area of triangle $ABC$: there is a right angle at point $B$ because the
tangent line drawn to a circle is perpendicular to the radius drawn to the
point of tangency. \ So the area is $A_{ABC}=\dfrac{1}{2}\overline{AB}\cdot 
\overline{BC}$. \ Clearly $\overline{BC}=1$. \ To compute $\overline{AB}$,
in triangle $ABC$, \ $\tan x=\dfrac{\overline{AB}}{1}$ and so $\overline{AB}%
=\tan x$.$\medskip $

Area of triangle $ABC$: \ $\dfrac{1}{2}\left( 1\right) \left( \tan x\right) =%
\dfrac{\tan x}{2}$ or $\dfrac{\sin x}{2\cos x}$. \ So now 
\begin{equation*}
\text{Area of triangle }CDB\text{ }\leq \text{ Area of sector }CEB\text{ }%
\leq \text{ Area of triangle }ABC
\end{equation*}%
translates to 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{1}{2}\sin x\cos x\leq \dfrac{x}{2}\leq \dfrac{\sin x}{2\cos x}
\end{equation*}

Let us divide all three sides by $\dfrac{\sin x}{2}$. \ Because $x$ is small
and positive, $\dfrac{\sin x}{2}$ is positive and so we do not need to
reverse the inequality signs.%
\begin{equation*}
\cos x\leq \dfrac{x}{\sin x}\leq \dfrac{1}{\cos x}
\end{equation*}%
Suppose now that $x$ approaches zero. \ Then both $\cos x$ and $\dfrac{1}{%
\cos x}$ approach $1$. \ By the sandwich principle, $\dfrac{x}{\sin x}$, the
quantity locked in between those two must also approach $1.$ \ 
\begin{equation*}
\begin{array}{ccccc}
\cos x & \leq & \dfrac{x}{\sin x} & \leq & \dfrac{1}{\cos x} \\ 
\downarrow &  &  &  & \downarrow \\ 
1 &  &  &  & 1%
\end{array}%
\end{equation*}%
If $\dfrac{x}{\sin x}$ approaches $1,$ so is its reciprocal, $\dfrac{\sin x}{%
x}$.$\medskip $

So far, we have proven the statement for positive values of $x$, that is, $%
\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0^{+}}\dfrac{\sin x}{x}=1$. \ A similar argument
works for negative values of $x$. \bigskip $\medskip \medskip $

Claim 2.) \ $\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos x-1}{x}=0\medskip $

Proof: 
\begin{eqnarray*}
\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos x-1}{x} &=&\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow
0}\dfrac{\cos x-1}{x}\cdot 1=\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\left( \dfrac{\cos
x-1}{x}\cdot \dfrac{\cos x+1}{\cos x+1}\right) =\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}%
\dfrac{\cos ^{2}x-1}{x\left( \cos x+1\right) }=\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}%
\dfrac{-\left( 1-\cos ^{2}x\right) }{x\left( \cos x+1\right) } \\
&=&\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{-\sin ^{2}x}{x\left( \cos x+1\right) }%
=\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\cdot \dfrac{-\sin x}{\cos x+1}%
=\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\cdot
\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{-\sin x}{\cos x+1}=1\cdot 0=0
\end{eqnarray*}

We are now ready to prove that \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ \ and \ $%
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos x=-\sin x\medskip $

Proof:%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin x &=&\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin \left(
x+h\right) -\sin x}{h}=\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin x\cos h+\cos
x\sin h-\sin x}{h} \\
&=&\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\left( \dfrac{\sin x\cos h-\sin x}{h}+\dfrac{%
\cos x\sin h}{h}\right) \medskip \medskip =\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}%
\dfrac{\sin x\left( \cos h-1\right) }{h}+\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\cos x%
\dfrac{\sin h}{h} \\
&=&\sin x\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos h-1}{h}+\cos
x\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin h}{h}=\sin x\cdot 0+\cos x\cdot
1=\cos x
\end{eqnarray*}%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos x &=&\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos \left(
x+h\right) -\cos x}{h}=\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos x\cos h-\sin
x\sin h-\cos x}{h} \\
&=&\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\left( \dfrac{\cos x\cos h-\cos x}{h}-\dfrac{%
\sin x\sin h}{h}\right) =\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos x\left(
\cos h-1\right) }{h}-\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin x\sin h}{h} \\
&=&\cos x\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\cos h-1}{h}-\sin
x\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac{\sin h}{h}=\cos x\cdot 0-\sin x\cdot
1=-\sin x
\end{eqnarray*}%
\bigskip \pagebreak

\fbox{Theorem 3 and 4: \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan x=\sec ^{2}x=\tan ^{2}x+1$ and $%
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot x=-\csc ^{2}x=-\cot ^{2}x-1$.}\bigskip

Proof: \ We write $\tan x=\dfrac{\sin x}{\cos x}$ and apply the quotient
rule.%
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\left( \dfrac{\sin x}{\cos x}\right) =\dfrac{\left( \dfrac{d}{dx%
}\sin x\right) \cos x-\left( \dfrac{d}{dx}\cos x\right) \sin x}{\cos ^{2}x}=%
\dfrac{\cos x\cos x-\left( -\sin x\right) \sin x}{\cos ^{2}x}=\dfrac{\cos
^{2}x+\sin ^{2}x}{\cos ^{2}x}=\dfrac{1}{\cos ^{2}x}=\sec ^{2}x
\end{equation*}%
We will now prove $\dfrac{1}{\cos ^{2}x}=\tan ^{2}x+1,$ which is a very
important connection. \ Looking at the previous computation, 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{1}{\cos ^{2}x}=\dfrac{\cos ^{2}x+\sin ^{2}x}{\cos ^{2}x}=\dfrac{\cos
^{2}x}{\cos ^{2}x}+\dfrac{\sin ^{2}x}{\cos ^{2}x}=1+\tan ^{2}x
\end{equation*}

The proof for$\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot x=-\cot ^{2}x-1=-\csc ^{2}x$ is very
similar. \ We apply the quotient rule.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot x &=&\dfrac{d}{dx}\left( \dfrac{\cos x}{\sin x}\right) =%
\dfrac{\left( \dfrac{d}{dx}\cos x\right) \sin x-\cos x\left( \dfrac{d}{dx}%
\sin x\right) }{\sin ^{2}x}=\dfrac{-\sin x\sin x-\cos x\left( \cos x\right) 
}{\sin ^{2}x}=\dfrac{-\sin ^{2}x-\cos ^{2}x}{\sin ^{2}x} \\
&=&-\dfrac{1}{\sin ^{2}x}=-\csc ^{2}x
\end{eqnarray*}%
Also, 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{-\sin ^{2}x-\cos ^{2}x}{\sin ^{2}x}=\dfrac{-\sin ^{2}x}{\sin ^{2}x}-%
\dfrac{\cos ^{2}x}{\sin ^{2}x}=-1-\cot ^{2}x
\end{equation*}%
\bigskip

\fbox{Theorems \ 5 and 6: $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec x=\sec x\tan x$ \ and \ $\dfrac{%
d}{dx}\csc x=-\csc x\cot x$}\bigskip

Proof: \ We write $\sec x=\dfrac{1}{\cos x}=\left( \cos x\right) ^{-1}$ and
apply the chain rule.%
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec x=\dfrac{d}{dx}\left( \cos x\right) ^{-1}=-1\left( \cos
x\right) ^{-2}\left( \dfrac{d}{dx}\cos x\right) =\dfrac{-1}{\cos ^{2}x}%
\left( -\sin x\right) =\dfrac{\sin x}{\cos ^{2}x}=\dfrac{1}{\cos x}\cdot 
\dfrac{\sin x}{\cos x}=\sec x\tan x
\end{equation*}

The proof for\ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc x$ is virtually identical: \ we apply the
chain rule.%
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc x=\dfrac{d}{dx}\left( \sin x\right) ^{-1}=-1\left( \sin
x\right) ^{-2}\left( \dfrac{d}{dx}\sin x\right) =\dfrac{-1}{\sin ^{2}x}\cos
x=-\dfrac{\cos x}{\sin ^{2}x}=-\dfrac{\cos x}{\sin x}\dfrac{1}{\sin x}=-\cot
x\csc x
\end{equation*}%
\bigskip

Note: why do we prefer the form $\sec x\tan x$ over the form $\dfrac{\sin x}{%
\cos ^{2}x}$? \ One of the reasons is the adventage we'll see in
differentiating the inverse functions $\sec ^{-1}x$ and $\csc ^{-1}x$%
.\bigskip \pagebreak

\fbox{Theorems 7 and 8: \ \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}%
}}$ and $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}$}$\medskip $

Proof: \ $\medskip $

Claim 1: $\cos \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) =\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\medskip $\newline
We first introduce a new variable, $\beta $. \ Let $\beta =\sin ^{-1}x$. \
This means that $-\dfrac{\pi }{2}<\beta <\dfrac{\pi }{2}$, and $\sin \beta
=x $. \ We need to simplify $\cos \underset{\beta }{\underbrace{\left( \sin
^{-1}x\right) }}=\cos \beta $. \ Since $\sin ^{2}\beta +\cos ^{2}\beta =1,$%
\begin{equation*}
\cos \beta =\pm \sqrt{1-\sin ^{2}\beta }=\pm \sqrt{1-x^{2}}
\end{equation*}%
Since $-\dfrac{\pi }{2}<\beta <\dfrac{\pi }{2}$, $\cos \beta $ is positive
and so $\cos \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) =\sqrt{1-x^{2}}$. \ $\medskip $

Recall that when we compose a function $f$ with its inverse $f^{-1,}\,$the
result is always the same function:%
\begin{equation*}
f\left( f^{-1}\left( x\right) \right) =x
\end{equation*}%
We will state this fact for $f\left( x\right) =\sin x$ and differentiate
both sides of the equation. \ For the left-hand side, we use the chain rule.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\sin \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
\cos \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\sin ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }\cos \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sin ^{-1}x &=&\dfrac{1}{\cos \left( \sin ^{-1}x\right) }=%
\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}
\end{eqnarray*}%
\bigskip

The proof for \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}$ is
virtually identical.$\medskip $

Proof: \ 

Claim 1: $\ \sin \left( \cos ^{-1}x\right) =\sqrt{1-x^{2}}$.

Let $\alpha =\cos ^{-1}x$. \ Then $x=\cos \alpha $ and $\alpha $ is between $%
0$ and $\pi $. \ Then 
\begin{equation*}
\sin \left( \underset{\alpha }{\underbrace{\cos ^{-1}x}}\right) =\sin \alpha
=\pm \sqrt{1-\cos ^{2}\alpha }=\pm \sqrt{1-x^{2}}
\end{equation*}%
Since $\alpha $ is between $0$ and $\pi $, $\sin \alpha $ is positive and so 
$\sin \alpha =\sqrt{1-x^{2}}$.$\medskip $

Recall that when we compose a function $f$ with its inverse $f^{-1,}\,$the
result is always the same function:%
\begin{equation*}
f\left( f^{-1}\left( x\right) \right) =x
\end{equation*}%
We will state this fact for $f\left( x\right) =\cos x$ and differentiate
both sides of the equation. \ For the left-hand side, we use the chain rule.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\cos \left( \cos ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
-\sin \left( \cos ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\cos ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }\sin \left( \cos ^{-1}x\right) \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cos ^{-1}x &=&-\dfrac{1}{\sin \left( \cos ^{-1}x\right) }=-%
\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}
\end{eqnarray*}%
$\bigskip $

\fbox{Theorems 9 and 10: $\ \dfrac{d}{dx}\tan ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}$ and 
$\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}$}\bigskip

Proof: \ Recall that $\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan x=\sec ^{2}x=\tan ^{2}x+1$. \ Also
recall that when we compose a function $f$ with its inverse $f^{-1,}\,$the
result is always the same function:%
\begin{equation*}
f\left( f^{-1}\left( x\right) \right) =x
\end{equation*}%
We will state this fact for $f\left( x\right) =\tan x$ and differentiate
both sides of the equation. \ For the left-hand side, we use the chain rule.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\tan \left( \tan ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
\sec ^{2}\left( \tan ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\tan ^{-1}x &=&1 \\
\left( \tan ^{2}\left( \tan ^{-1}x\right) +1\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\tan
^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }\tan \left( \tan
^{-1}x\right) =x \\
\left( x^{2}+1\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\tan ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }x^{2}+1 \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan ^{-1}x &=&\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}
\end{eqnarray*}%
\bigskip

The proof for $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}$ is virtually
identical. \ We compose the function $\cot x$ with its inverse $\cot
^{-1}x\, $ and differentiate. \ Recall that $\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot x=-\cot
^{2}x-1$%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\cot \left( \cot ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
\left( -\cot ^{2}\left( \cot ^{-1}x\right) -1\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\cot
^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }\cot \left( \cot
^{-1}x\right) =x \\
\left( -x^{2}-1\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\cot ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }-x^{2}-1 \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\cot ^{-1}x &=&\dfrac{1}{-x^{2}-1}=-\dfrac{1}{x^{2}+1}
\end{eqnarray*}%
$\bigskip \bigskip $

\fbox{Theorem 11 and 12: $\ \dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{\left\vert
x\right\vert \sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$ \ and \ $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{%
\left\vert x\right\vert \sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$}$\bigskip $

Proof: \ We compose the function $\sec x$ with its inverse $\sec ^{-1}x$ and
differentiate. \ Recall that $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec x=\sec x\tan x$.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\sec \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
\sec \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) \tan \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d%
}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }\sec
\left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) =x \\
x\tan \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }x\tan \left( \sec
^{-1}x\right) \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x &=&\dfrac{1}{x\tan \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) }
\end{eqnarray*}

To simplify $\tan \left( \sec ^{-1}x\right) $, we introduce a new variable $%
\alpha $. \ Let $\alpha =\sec ^{-1}x$. \ The we have $\tan \underset{\alpha }%
{\left( \underbrace{\sec ^{-1}x}\right) }=\tan \alpha $ where $\sec \alpha
=x $ and $\alpha $ is between $0$ and $\pi $. \ Recall that $\sec ^{2}\alpha
=\tan ^{2}\alpha +1$. \ If we don't have this formula memorized, we can
easily derive it from the Pythagorean identity:%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\sin ^{2}\alpha +\cos ^{2}\alpha &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide
by }\cos ^{2}x \\
\tan ^{2}\alpha +1 &=&\sec ^{2}\alpha \\
\tan \alpha &=&\pm \sqrt{\sec ^{2}\alpha -1}
\end{eqnarray*}%
Thus the derivative is 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{x\left( \pm \sqrt{x^{2}-1}\right) }=\pm 
\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}
\end{equation*}%
We now need to figure out the sign of the derivative. \ From the graph of $%
\sec ^{-1}x$ we can see that it is strictly increasing on both intervals
making up its domain, thus the derivative is always positive. \ If $x$ is
positive, then $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$ and if $%
x$ is negative, then $\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$.
\ \ This can be expressed in a shorter form as 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\sec ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{\left\vert x\right\vert \sqrt{x^{2}-1}}
\end{equation*}%
\bigskip

The proof for $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\left\vert x\right\vert 
\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$ is virtually identical. \ \ As before, we compose the
function $\csc x$ with its inverse and differentiate. \ Recall that $\dfrac{d%
}{dx}\csc x=-\csc x\cot x$%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\csc \left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) &=&x \\
-\csc \left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) \cot \left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d%
}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ }\csc
\left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) =x \\
-x\cot \left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) \cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x &=&1\text{ \
\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }-x\cot \left( \csc
^{-1}x\right) \\
\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x &=&-\dfrac{1}{x\cot \left( \csc ^{-1}x\right) }
\end{eqnarray*}

Simplify $\cot \underset{\alpha }{\left( \underbrace{\csc ^{-1}x}\right) }%
=\cot \alpha $ where $\csc \alpha =x$ and $\alpha $ is between $-\dfrac{\pi 
}{2}$ and $\dfrac{\pi }{2}$.%
\begin{eqnarray*}
\sin ^{2}\alpha +\cos ^{2}\alpha  &=&1\text{ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ divide by }\sin
^{2}x \\
1+\cot ^{2}\alpha  &=&\csc ^{2}\alpha  \\
\cot ^{2}\alpha  &=&\csc ^{2}\alpha -1 \\
\cot \alpha  &=&\pm \sqrt{\csc ^{2}\alpha -1}
\end{eqnarray*}%
Thus the derivative is 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x\left( \pm \sqrt{x^{2}-1}\right) }=\pm 
\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}
\end{equation*}%
From the graph of $\csc ^{-1}x$ we can see that it is strictly decreasing on
both intervals of its domain, thus the derivative is always negative. \ If $x
$ is positive, then $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}$
and if $x$ is negative, then $\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{%
x^{2}-1}}$. \ \ This can be expressed in a shorter form as 
\begin{equation*}
\dfrac{d}{dx}\csc ^{-1}x=-\dfrac{1}{\left\vert x\right\vert \sqrt{x^{2}-1}}
\end{equation*}%
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